Romans: 3; 26-28...
"To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus. Where is the boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? Of works? Nay: but by the law of faith. Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
And Galatians: 2; 16...
"Knowing that a man is not justified by works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
Galatians: 3; 2...
"This only would I learn of you, received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
Galatians: 3; 5...
"He therefore that ministereth to you the Spirit, and worketh miracles among you, doeth he it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
Galatians: 3; 10-11...
"For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them. But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith."
The following explanation is taken from Dr. Taylor Marshall's website: taylormarshall.com.
When Saint Paul speaks of the “works of the law,” he refers to what we know as the six hundred and thirteen precepts of the Torah, such as Jewish prohibitions against eating pork, the mandate of circumcision, and the observance of Passover.
So then, when Saint Paul wrote: “Man is justified by faith apart from works of the law,” did he simply mean that Christians are not justified by the ceremonial law? Or did Paul mean that Christians are not justified by works of any sort? To put the question another way, when Saint Paul refers to “works of the law” did he mean “works of the ceremonial law,” or did he mean “all works without distinction”? The way we answer this important question determines how we understand “works” with regard to grace and faith.
Saint Paul includes the moral precepts (for example, “thou shalt not covet”) as belonging to the “works of the law” (Romans: 7; 6-12).
In Romans 12, St. Paul relates the following (referring to the Commandments -- the Law) "Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good."
My Comment: There is no contradiction here, if one reads and understands the entire teaching of St. Paul...
Back to Dr. Marshall...
This from the Council of Trent: "Canon I. If any one says that man may be justified before God by his own works, whether done through the teaching of human nature, or that of the law, without the grace of God through Jesus Christ—let him be anathema."
Grace remains primary in Catholic teaching. Neither faith nor works merit our justification. Justification is received by faith and perfected by works of charity, but it is not earned by works alone.
No man can be justified simply by observing the moral law found in the Ten Commandments. This is the authentic Catholic teaching of the Catholic Church. “And without faith it is impossible to please God” (Heb 11:6). There is a synergy between faith and works, as James teaches (Jas 2:24). It is not faith alone. It is not works alone. It is faith first and works following—each flowing from the wellspring of grace springing from the wounded side of the crucified Christ.
I answer the question in the title of my article: It is Faith AND Works...
God bless all in this Season of Lent...
Viva Cristo Rey! Fr. Miguel Pro, pray for us...
Gene DeLalla
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